Romelu Lukaku, the Belgium international striker currently at Napoli, is being linked with a move to MLS side New York City as the 33-year-old weighs up his next step after nearly two decades at the top level.
The centre-forward, who joined Napoli from Chelsea in August 2024 for a fee of €30.7m, is under contract with the Italian champions until 30 June 2027, meaning any deal would require negotiations with the Serie A club rather than a free transfer. His current estimated value stands at around €6m, underlining how far his market price has fallen from a peak of €100m earlier in his career and potentially making a transatlantic move more attainable for New York City.
Lukaku has enjoyed a successful spell in Italy, winning the Serie A title with Napoli in 2024-25 to add to his previous Scudetto with Inter Milan in 2020-21. For club sides in Serie A he has produced 85 goals and 30 assists in 170 league appearances, while his long stint in the Premier League yielded 121 goals in 278 matches.
On the international stage, the left-footed forward featured at the 2026 World Cup, making six appearances for Belgium and contributing three goals and one assist, directly involved in 29% of his team’s goals at the tournament.
Having already experienced major clubs in England and Italy, as well as a recent Club World Cup triumph with Chelsea in 2022, a switch to New York City would mark Lukaku’s first move to MLS. For now, he remains a Napoli player heading into the final year of his deal, with his future likely to hinge on whether the Italian side are prepared to cash in before his contract enters its final 12 months.
